Is the Law of God and the Law of Moses the Same Thing?

Episode 241 Show Notes 

Is the Law of God and the Law of Moses the Same Thing?

From the Show

Is the Law of God and the Law of Moses the same thing?

The law is always meant to lead us to the gospel; it shows us our need for God's grace. And that's true even when we're thinking strictly about the law of Moses or the Old Covenant. Paul teaches in Galatians 3 that the law shows us that we fall short of God's holy standard and can’t be justified. That is, we can’t be right in God's sight on the basis of our own works or obedience. Paul said in Galatians 3:24, “So then the law was our guardian until Christ came in order that we might be justified by faith.” The law of God is used in different ways in the Old Testament; sometimes it's referring to the 10 commandments or the Decalogue, sometimes it's referring to the Torah, the books of Moses, but at the end of the day, all of it is pointing us to Christ and his work on our behalf. — Adriel Sanchez

Questions in this Episode

1. Does grace mean that we have to forgive everyone even if they sin against us in the same way over and over? At what point do we say that a person needs to repent?

2. Is the law of God and the law of Moses the same thing? Or are these unique? Is there a difference in the two or are they synonymous?

3. Why did God reject Saul as Israel’s king and accept David when David turned out to be almost as bad morally? Was the difference David’s heart and is that why God accepts some of us today and will reject others in the judgment?

4. If I was counting days between good Friday and resurrection Sunday, I'm only counting 2 days instead of 3. Am I missing something here about how Jews would have counted days or am I overthinking this here?

5. Does the Old Covenant offer a different way of salvation from the New Covenant? Are Jews today supposed to keep the Old Covenant while Christians are to keep the New Covenant?

6. The Old Testament says no one has ever seen God at any time. How can it also be true that to have seen Jesus is to see the Father? I'm struggling with apologetically explaining how both can be true.

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